Oct 06, 2019
Suppose you observe the historical returns of \(p\) different fund managers,
and wish to test whether any of them have superior Signal-Noise ratio (SNR)
compared to the others.
The first test you might perform is the test of pairwise equality of all SNRs.
This test relies on the multivariate delta method and central limit theorem,
resulting in a chi-square test, as described by Wright et al and outlined
in section 4.3 of our Short Sharpe Course.
This test is analogous to ANOVA, where one tests different populations for unequal
means, assuming equal variance.
(The equal Sharpe test, however, deals naturally with the case of paired observations,
which is commonly the case in testing asset returns.)
In the analogous procedure, if one rejects the null of equal means in an ANOVA, one
can perform pairwise tests for equality. This is called a post hoc test, since
it is performed conditional on a rejection in the ANOVA.
The basic post hoc test is Tukey's range test, sometimes called 'Honest Significant Differences'.
It is natural to ask whether we can extend the same procedure to testing the SNR.
Here we will propose such a procedure for a crude model of correlated returns.
The Tukey test has increased power by pooling all populations together to
estimate the overall variance. The test statistic then becomes something like
$$
\frac{Y_{(p)} - Y_{(1)}}{\sqrt{S^2 / n}},
$$
where \(Y_{(1)}\) is the smallest mean observed, and \(Y_{(p)}\) is the largest,
and \(S^2\) is the pooled estimate of variance. The difference between
the maximal and minimal \(Y\) is why this is called the 'range' test,
since this is the range of the observed means.
Switching back to our problem, we should not have to assume that our
tested returns series have the same volatility.
Moreover, the standard error of the Sharpe ratio is only weakly dependent
on the unknown population parameters, so we will not pool variances.
In our paper on testing the asset with maximal Sharpe,
we established that the vector of Sharpes, for normal returns and
when the SNRs are small,
is approximately asymptotically normal:
$$
\hat{\zeta}\approx\mathcal{N}\left(\zeta,\frac{1}{n}R\right).
$$
Here \(R\) is the correlation of returns.
See our previous blog post for more details.
Under the null hypothesis that all SNRs are equal to \(\zeta_0\),
we can express this
$$
z = \sqrt{n} \left(R^{1/2}\right)^{-1} \left(\hat{\zeta} - \zeta_0\right) \approx\mathcal{N}\left(0,I\right),
$$
where \(R^{1/2}\) is a matrix square root of \(R\).
Now assume the simple rank-one model for correlation, where
assets are correlated to a single common latent factor,
but are otherwise independent:
$$
R = \left(1-\rho\right) I + \rho 1 1^{\top}.
$$
Under this model of \(R\) we computed inverse-square-root
of \(R\) as
$$
\left(R^{1/2}\right)^{-1} = \left(1-\rho\right)^{-1/2} I + \frac{1}{p}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho+p\rho}} - \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho}}\right)1 1^{\top}.
$$
Picking two distinct indices, \(i, j\) let \(v = \left(e_i - e_j\right)\) be the contrast
vector. We have
$$
v^{\top}z = \frac{\sqrt{n}}{\sqrt{\left(1-\rho\right)}}v^{\top}\hat{\zeta},
$$
because \(v^{\top}1=0\).
Thus the range of the observed Sharpe ratios is a scalar multiple of the range
of a set of \(p\) independent standard normal variables.
This is akin to the 'monotonicity' principle that we abused earlier
when performing inference on the asset with maximum Sharpe.
Under normal approximation and the rank-one correlation model, we should then
see
$$
|\hat{\zeta}_i - \hat{\zeta}_j| \ge HSD = q_{1-\alpha,p,\infty} \sqrt{\frac{(1-\rho)}{n}},
$$
with probability \(\alpha\), where the \(q_{1-\alpha,m,n}\) is the upper \(\alpha\)-quantile
of the Tukey distribution with \(m\) and \(n\) degrees of freedom.
This is computed by qtukey
in R.
Alternatively one can construct confidence intervals around each \(\hat{\zeta}_i\) of
width \(HSD\), whereby if another \(\hat{\zeta}_j\) does not fall within it, the two
are said to be Honestly Significantly Different. The familywise error rate should be
no more than \(\alpha\).
Testing
Let's test this under the null. We spawn 4 years of correlated returns
from 16 managers, then compare the maximum and minimum observed Sharpe ratio,
comparing them to the test value of \(HSD\).
Assume that the correlation is known to have value \(\rho=0.8\).
(More realistically, it would have to be estimated.)
Note that for this many fund managers we have
$$
q_{0.95,16,\infty}=4.85,
$$
and thus taking into account the \(\sqrt{1-\rho}\) term,
$$
HSD = \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}} 2.17.
$$
This is only slightly bigger than the naive approximate confidence
intervals one would typically apply to the Sharpe ratio, which in this case
would be around
$$
\frac{\Phi^{-1}\left(0.975\right)}{\sqrt{n}} = \frac{1.96}{\sqrt{n}}.
$$
We perform 10 thousand simulations, computing the Sharpe over all managers,
and collecting the ranges. We compute the empirical type I error rate,
and find it to be nearly equal to the nominal value of 0.05:
suppressMessages({
library(mvtnorm)
})
nman <- 16
nyr <- 4
ope <- 252
SNR <- 0.8 # annual units
rho <- 0.8
nday <- round(nyr * ope)
R <- pmin(diag(nman) + rho,1)
mu <- rep(SNR / sqrt(ope),nman)
nsim <- 10000
set.seed(1234)
ranges <- replicate(nsim,{
X <- mvtnorm::rmvnorm(nday,mean=mu,sigma=R)
zetahat <- colMeans(X) / apply(X,2,sd)
max(zetahat) - min(zetahat)
})
alpha <- 0.05
HSDval <- sqrt((1-rho) / nday) * qtukey(alpha,lower.tail=FALSE,nmeans=nman,df=Inf)
mean(ranges > HSDval)
Compact Letter Display
The results of Tukey's test can be difficult to summarize. You might observe,
for example, that managers 1 and 2 have significantly different SNRs,
but not have enough evidence to say that 1 and 3 have different SNR, nor 2 and 3.
How, then should you think about manager 3? He/She perhaps has the same SNR as
2, and perhaps the same as 1, but you have evidence that 1 and 2 have different SNR.
You might label 1 as being among the 'high performers' and 2 among the 'average performers';
In which group should you place 3?
One answer would be to put manager 3 in both groups.
This is a solution you might see as the result of compact letter displays, which is
a commonly used way of communicating the results of multiple comparison procedures
like Tukey's test.
The idea is to put managers into multiple groups, each group identified by a letter,
such that if two managers are in a common group, the HSD test fails to find they
have significantly different SNR.
The assignment to groups is actually not unique, and so subject to
optimizing certain criteria, like minimizing the total number of groups, and so on,
cf. Gramm et al.
For our purposes here, we use Piepho's algorithm, which is conveniently provided
by the multcompView
package in R.
Here we apply the technique to the series of monthly returns of 5 industry
factors, as compiled by Ken French, and published in his data library.
We have almost 1200 months of data for these 5 returns.
The returns are highly positively correlated, and we find that their
common correlation is very close to 0.8.
For this setup, and measuring the Sharpe in annualized units,
the critical value at the 0.05 level is
$$
HSD = \sqrt{12/n} 1.73.
$$
For comparison, the half-width of the two sided confidence interval on the
Sharpe in this case would be
$$
\sqrt{12/n} 1.96,
$$
which is a bit bigger. We have actually gained resolving power in our
comparison of industries because of the high level of correlation.
Below we compute the observed Sharpe ratios of the five industries,
finding them to range from around \(0.49\,\mbox{year}^{-1/2}\) to
\(0.67\,\mbox{year}^{-1/2}\).
We compute the HSD threshold, then call Piepho's method and
print the compact letter display, shown below.
In this case we require two groups, 'a' and 'b'.
Based on our post hoc test, we assign
Healthcare and Other into two different groups, but find no other
honest significant differences, and so Consumer, Manufacturing and Technology
get lumped into both groups.
# this is just a package of some data:
# if (!require(aqfb.data)) { install.packages('shabbychef/aqfb_data') }
library(aqfb.data)
data(mind5)
mysr <- colMeans(mind5) / apply(mind5,2,FUN=sd)
# sort decreasing for convenience later
mysr <- sort(mysr,decreasing=TRUE)
# annualize it
ope <- 12
mysr <- sqrt(ope) * mysr
# show
print(mysr)
## Healthcare Consumer Manufacturing Technology Other
## 0.664421 0.649723 0.602318 0.584746 0.486777
srdiff <- outer(mysr,mysr,FUN='-')
R <- cov2cor(cov(mind5))
# this ends up being around 0.8:
myrho <- median(R[row(R) < col(R)])
alpha <- 0.05
HSD <- sqrt(ope) * sqrt((1-myrho) / nrow(mind5)) * qtukey(alpha,lower.tail=FALSE,nmeans=ncol(mind5),df=Inf)
library(multcompView)
lets <- multcompLetters(abs(srdiff) > HSD)
print(lets)
## $Letters
## Healthcare Consumer Manufacturing Technology Other
## "a" "a" "a" "a" "a"
##
## $LetterMatrix
## a
## Healthcare TRUE
## Consumer TRUE
## Manufacturing TRUE
## Technology TRUE
## Other TRUE
Click to read and post comments
Jun 04, 2019
In a previous blog post we used the
'Polyhedral Inference' trick of Lee et al. to perform
conditional inference on the asset with maximum Sharpe ratio.
This is now a short paper on arxiv.
I was somewhat disappointed to find, as noted in the paper,
that polyhedral inference has lower power than a simple Bonferroni correction
against alternatives where many assets have the same Signal-Noise ratio.
(Though apparently it has higher power when one asset alone higher SNR.)
The interpretation is that when there is no spread in the SNR, Bonferroni
correction should have the same power as a single asset test, while
conditional inference is sensitive to the conditioning information that
you are testing a single asset which has Sharpe ratio perhaps near that of
other assets. In the opposite case, Bonferroni suffers from having to 'pay'
for a lot of irrelevant (for having low Sharpe) assets, while conditional
inference does fine.
I also showed in the paper, as I demonstrated in a previous blog post,
that the Bonferroni correction is conservative when asset
returns are correlated. In a simple simulations under the null, I showed
that the empirical type I rate goes to zero as common correlation \(\rho\) goes to one.
In this blog post I will describe a simple trick to correct for average positive
correlation.
So let us suppose that we observe returns on \(p\) assets over \(n\) days,
and that returns have correlation matrix \(R\).
Let \(\hat{\zeta}\) be the vector of Sharpe ratios over this sample.
In the paper I show that if returns are normal then the following
approximation holds
$$
\hat{\zeta}\approx\mathcal{N}\left(\zeta,\frac{1}{n}\left(
R + \frac{1}{2}\operatorname{Diag}\left(\zeta\right)\left(R \odot R\right)\operatorname{Diag}\left(\zeta\right)
\right)\right).
$$
There is a more general form for Elliptically distributed returns.
In the paper I find, via simulations, that for realistic
SNRs and large sample sizes, the more general form does not add much
accuracy. In fact, for the small SNRs one is likely to see in practice
the simple approximation
$$
\hat{\zeta}\approx\mathcal{N}\left(\zeta,\frac{1}{n}R\right)
$$
will suffice.
Now note that, under the null hypothesis that \(\zeta = \zeta_0\), one has
$$
z = \sqrt{n} \left(R^{1/2}\right)^{-1} \left(\hat{\zeta} - \zeta_0\right) \approx\mathcal{N}\left(0,I\right),
$$
where \(R^{1/2}\) is a matrix square root of \(R\).
Testing the null hypothesis should proceed by computing (or estimating) the
vector \(z\), then comparing to normality, either by a Chi-square statistic,
or performing Bonferroni-corrected normal inference on the largest element.
In the paper I used a simple rank-one model for correlation for simulations
using
$$
R = \left(1-\rho\right) I + \rho 1 1^{\top}.
$$
This effectively models the influence of a common single 'latent' factor.
Certainly this is more flexible for modeling real returns
than assuming identity correlation, but is not terribly realistic.
Under this model of \(R\) it is simple enough to compute the inverse-square-root
of \(R\). Namely
$$
\left(R^{1/2}\right)^{-1} = \left(1-\rho\right)^{-1/2} I + \frac{1}{p}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho+p\rho}} - \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho}}\right)1 1^{\top}.
$$
Let's just confirm with code:
p <- 4
rho <- 0.3
R <- (1-rho) * diag(p) + rho
ihR <- (1/sqrt(1-rho)) * diag(p) + (1/p) * ((1/sqrt(1-rho+p*rho)) - (1/sqrt(1-rho)))
hR <- solve(ihR)
R - hR %*% hR
## [,1] [,2] [,3] [,4]
## [1,] 4.44089e-16 2.22045e-16 1.11022e-16 1.66533e-16
## [2,] 1.66533e-16 2.22045e-16 5.55112e-17 1.11022e-16
## [3,] 1.11022e-16 1.66533e-16 0.00000e+00 1.11022e-16
## [4,] 1.11022e-16 1.11022e-16 5.55112e-17 1.11022e-16
So to test the null hypothesis, one computes
$$
z = \sqrt{n} \left( \left(1-\rho\right)^{-1/2} I + \frac{1}{p}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho+p\rho}} - \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho}}\right)1 1^{\top} \right)
\left(\hat{\zeta} - \zeta_0\right)
$$
to test against normality. But note that our linear transformation is monotonic (indeed affine):
if \(v_i \ge v_j\) and \(w = \left(R^{1/2}\right)^{-1} v\), then \(w_i \ge w_j\).
This means that the maximum element of \(z\) has the same index as the maximum element of
\(\hat{\zeta} - \zeta_0\).
To perform Bonferroni correction we need only transform the largest element of
\(\hat{\zeta} - \zeta_0\), by scaling it up, and shifting to accomodate the average.
So if the largest element of \(\hat{\zeta} - \zeta_0\) is \(y\), and the average value
is \(a = \frac{1}{p}1^{\top} \left(\hat{\zeta} - \zeta_0\right)\), then the largest
value of \(z\) is
$$
\frac{\sqrt{n} y}{\sqrt{1-\rho}} + a \sqrt{n} \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho+p\rho}} - \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\rho}}\right)
$$
Reject the null hypothesis if this is larger than \(\Phi\left(1 - \alpha/p\right)\).
Simulations
Here we perform simple simulations of Bonferroni and corrected Bonferroni.
We will assume that returns are Gaussian, that the correlation follows
our simple rank one form, that the correlation is known in order to perform the
corrected test.
We simulate two years of daily data on 100 assets. For each choice of \(\rho\)
we perform 10000 simulations under the null of zero SNR, computing the simple and 'improved'
Bonferroni corrected hypothesis tests. We tabulate the empirical type I rate
and plot against \(\rho\).
suppressMessages({
library(dplyr)
library(tidyr)
library(doFuture)
})
# set up the functions
rawsim <- function(nday,nlatf,nsim=100,rho=0) {
R <- pmin(diag(nlatf) + rho,1)
mu <- rep(0,nlatf)
apart <- sqrt(nday)/sqrt(1-rho)
bpart <- sqrt(nday) * ((1/sqrt(1-rho+nlatf*rho)) - (1/sqrt(1-rho)))
mhtpvals <- replicate(nsim,{
X <- mvtnorm::rmvnorm(nday,mean=mu,sigma=R)
x <- colMeans(X) / apply(X,2,sd)
bonf_pval <- nlatf * SharpeR::psr(max(x),df=nday-1,zeta=0,ope=1,lower.tail=FALSE)
# do the correction
corr_stat <- apart * max(x) + bpart * mean(x)
corr_pval <- nlatf * pnorm(corr_stat,lower.tail=FALSE)
c(bonf_pval,corr_pval)
})
data_frame(bonf_pvals=as.numeric(mhtpvals[1,]),
corr_pvals=as.numeric(mhtpvals[2,]))
}
many_rawsim <- function(nday,nlatf,rho,nsim=1000L,nnodes=7) {
if ((nsim > 10*nnodes) && require(doFuture)) {
registerDoFuture()
plan(multiprocess)
nper <- as.numeric(table(1:nsim %% nnodes))
retv <- foreach(iii=1:nnodes,.export = c('nday','nlatf','rho','nper','rawsim')) %dopar% {
rawsim(nday=nday,nlatf=nlatf,rho=rho,nsim=nper[iii])
} %>%
bind_rows()
} else {
retv <- rawsim(nday=nday,nlatf=nlatf,rho=rho,nsim=nsim)
}
retv
}
mhtsim <- function(alpha=0.05,...) {
many_rawsim(...) %>%
tidyr::gather(key=method,value=pvalues) %>%
group_by(method) %>%
summarize(rej_rate=mean(pvalues < alpha)) %>%
ungroup() %>%
arrange(method)
}
# perform simulations
nsim <- 10000
nday <- 2*252
nlatf <- 100
params <- data_frame(rho=seq(0.01,0.99,length.out=7))
set.seed(123)
resu <- params %>%
group_by(rho) %>%
summarize(resu=list(mhtsim(nday=nday,nlatf=nlatf,rho=rho,nsim=nsim))) %>%
ungroup() %>%
unnest()
## Error: Problem with `summarise()` column `resu`.
## i `resu = list(mhtsim(nday = nday, nlatf = nlatf, rho = rho, nsim = nsim))`.
## x Interrupted
## i The error occurred in group 1: rho = 0.01.
## Error: Problem with `summarise()` column `resu`.
## i `resu = list(mhtsim(nday = nday, nlatf = nlatf, rho = rho, nsim = nsim))`.
## x Interrupted
## i The error occurred in group 1: rho = 0.01.
suppressMessages({
library(dplyr)
library(ggplot2)
})
# plot empirical rates
ph <- resu %>%
mutate(method=gsub('bonf_pvals','Plain Bonferroni',method)) %>%
mutate(method=gsub('corr_pvals','Corrected Bonferroni',method)) %>%
ggplot(aes(rho,rej_rate,color=method)) +
geom_line() + geom_point() +
geom_hline(yintercept=0.05,linetype=2,alpha=0.5) +
scale_y_sqrt() +
labs(title='Empirical type I rate at the 0.05 level',
x=expression(rho),y='type I rate',
color='test')
## Error in mutate(., method = gsub("bonf_pvals", "Plain Bonferroni", method)): object 'resu' not found
As desired, we maintain nominal coverage using the correction for \(\rho\), while
the naive Bonferroni is too conservative for large \(\rho\).
This is not yet a practical test, but could be used for rough estimation by
plugging in the average sample correlation (or just SWAG'ing one).
To my tastes a more interesting question is whether one can
generalize this process to a rank \(k\) approximation of \(R\) while
keeping the monotonicity property. (I have my doubts this is possible)
Click to read and post comments
May 11, 2019
In a previous blog post we looked at a symmetric
confidence intervals on the Signal-Noise ratio.
That study was motivated by the "opportunistic strategy", wherein
one observes the historical returns of an asset to determine whether
to hold it long or short. Then, conditional on the sign of the trade,
we were able to construct proper confidence intervals on the Signal-Noise
ratio of the opportunistic strategy's returns.
I had hoped that one could generalize from the single asset opportunistic
strategy to the case of \(p\) assets, where one constructs the Markowitz
portfolio based on observed returns.
I have not had much luck finding that generalization.
However, we can generalize the opportunistic strategy in a different
way to what I call the "Winner Take All" strategy.
Here one observes the historical returns of \(p\) different assets,
then chooses the one with the highest observed Sharpe ratio to hold long.
(Let us hold off on an Opportunistic Winner Take All.)
Observe, however, this is just the problem of inferring the Signal Noise
ratio (SNR) of the asset with the maximal Sharpe.
We previously approached that problem using a
Markowitz approximation, finding it somewhat lacking.
That Markowitz approximation was an attempt to correct some deficiencies
with what is apparently the state of the art in the field, Marcos
Lopez de Prado's (now AQR's?) "Most Important Plot in All of Finance",
which is a thin layer of Multiple Hypothesis Testing correction over the
usual distribution of the Sharpe ratio.
In a previous blog post, we found that
Lopez de Prado's method would have lower than nominal type I rates
as it ignored correlation of assets.
Moreover, a simple MHT correction will not, I think,
deal very well with the case where there are great differences
in the Signal Noise ratios of the assets.
The 'stinker' assets with low SNR will simply spoil our inference,
unlikely to have much influence on which asset shows the
highest Sharpe ratio, and only causing us to increase our
significance threshold.
With my superior googling skills I recently discovered a 2013 paper
by Lee et al,
titled Exact Post-Selection Inference, with Application to the Lasso.
While aimed at the Lasso, this paper includes a procedure that
essentially solves our problem, giving hypothesis tests or
confidence intervals with nominal coverage on the asset with
maximal Sharpe among a set of possibly correlated assets.
The Lee et al paper assumes one observes \(p\)-vector
$$
y \sim \mathcal{N}\left(\mu,\Sigma\right).
$$
Then conditional on \(y\) falling in some polyhedron, \(Ay \le b\), we wish
to perform inference on \(\nu^{\top}y\).
In our case the polyhedron will be the union of all polyhedra with the same
maximal element of \(y\) as we observed.
That is, assume that we have reordered the elements of \(y\) such that \(y_1\) is the
largest element. Then \(A\) will be a column of negative ones, cbinded to the \(p-1\) identity
matrix, and \(b\) will be a \(p-1\) vector of zeros.
The test is defined on \(\nu=e_1\) the vector with a single one in the first element
and zero otherwise.
Their method works by decomposing the condition \(Ay \le b\) into a condition on
\(\nu^{\top}y\) and a condition on some \(z\) which is normal but independent of
\(\nu^{\top}y\).
You can think of this as kind of inverting the transform by \(A\).
After this transform, the value of \(\nu^{\top}y\) is restricted to a line
segment, so we need only perform inference on a truncated normal.
The code to implement this is fairly straightforward, and given below.
The procedure to compute the quantile function, which we will need
to compute confidence intervals, is a bit trickier, due to numerical
issues. We give a hacky version below.
# Lee et. al eqn (5.8)
F_fnc <- function(x,a,b,mu=0,sigmasq=1) {
sigma <- sqrt(sigmasq)
phis <- pnorm((c(x,a,b)-mu)/sigma)
(phis[1] - phis[2]) / (phis[3] - phis[2])
}
# Lee eqns (5.4), (5.5), (5.6)
Vfuncs <- function(z,A,b,ccc) {
Az <- A %*% z
Ac <- A %*% ccc
bres <- b - Az
brat <- bres
brat[Ac!=0] <- brat[Ac!=0] / Ac[Ac!=0]
Vminus <- max(brat[Ac < 0])
Vplus <- min(brat[Ac > 0])
Vzero <- min(bres[Ac == 0])
list(Vminus=Vminus,Vplus=Vplus,Vzero=Vzero)
}
# Lee et. al eqn (5.9)
ptn <- function(y,A,b,nu,mu,Sigma,numu=as.numeric(t(nu) %*% mu)) {
Signu <- Sigma %*% nu
nuSnu <- as.numeric(t(nu) %*% Signu)
ccc <- Signu / nuSnu # eqn (5.3)
nuy <- as.numeric(t(nu) %*% y)
zzz <- y - ccc * nuy # eqn (5.2)
Vfs <- Vfuncs(zzz,A,b,ccc)
F_fnc(x=nuy,a=Vfs$Vminus,b=Vfs$Vplus,mu=numu,sigmasq=nuSnu)
}
# invert the ptn function to find nu'mu at a given pval.
citn <- function(p,y,A,b,nu,Sigma) {
Signu <- Sigma %*% nu
nuSnu <- as.numeric(t(nu) %*% Signu)
ccc <- Signu / nuSnu # eqn (5.3)
nuy <- as.numeric(t(nu) %*% y)
zzz <- y - ccc * nuy # eqn (5.2)
Vfs <- Vfuncs(zzz,A,b,ccc)
# you want this, but there are numerical issues:
#f <- function(numu) { F_fnc(x=nuy,a=Vfs$Vminus,b=Vfs$Vplus,mu=numu,sigmasq=nuSnu) - p }
sigma <- sqrt(nuSnu)
f <- function(numu) {
phis <- pnorm((c(nuy,Vfs$Vminus,Vfs$Vplus)-numu)/sigma)
#(phis[1] - phis[2]) - p * (phis[3] - phis[2])
phis[1] - (1-p) * phis[2] - p * phis[3]
}
# this fails sometimes, so find a better interval
intvl <- c(-1,1) # a hack.
# this is very unfortunate
trypnts <- seq(from=min(y),to=max(y),length.out=31)
ys <- sapply(trypnts,f)
dsy <- diff(sign(ys))
if (any(dsy < 0)) {
widx <- which(dsy < 0)
intvl <- trypnts[widx + c(0,1)]
} else {
maby <- 2 * (0.1 + max(abs(y)))
trypnts <- seq(from=-maby,to=maby,length.out=31)
ys <- sapply(trypnts,f)
dsy <- diff(sign(ys))
if (any(dsy < 0)) {
widx <- which(dsy < 0)
intvl <- trypnts[widx + c(0,1)]
}
}
uniroot(f=f,interval=intvl,extendInt='yes')$root
}
Testing on normal data
Here we test the code above on the problem considered in Theorem 5.2 of
Lee et al.
That is, we draw
\(y \sim \mathcal{N}\left(\mu,\Sigma\right)\),
then observe the value of \(F\) given in Theorem 5.2
when we plug in the actual population values of \(\mu\) and \(\Sigma\).
This is several steps removed from our problem of inference on
the SNR, but it is best to pause and make sure the implementation
is correct first.
We perform 5000 simulations, letting \(p=20\), then creating a random \(\mu\) and
\(\Sigma\), drawing a single \(y\), observing which element is the maximum,
creating \(A, b, \nu\), then computing the \(F\) function, resulting in
a \(p\)-value which should be uniform. We Q-Q plot those empirical \(p\)-values
against a uniform law, finding them on the \(y=x\) line.
gram <- function(x) { t(x) %*% x }
rWish <- function(n,p=n,Sigma=diag(p)) {
require(mvtnorm)
gram(rmvnorm(p,sigma=Sigma))
}
nsim <- 5000
p <- 20
A1 <- cbind(-1,diag(p-1))
set.seed(1234)
pvals <- replicate(nsim,{
mu <- rnorm(p)
Sigma <- rWish(n=2*p+5,p=p)
y <- t(rmvnorm(1,mean=mu,sigma=Sigma) )
# collect the maximum, so reorder the A above
yord <- order(y,decreasing=TRUE)
revo <- seq_len(p)
revo[yord] <- revo
A <- A1[,revo]
nu <- rep(0,p)
nu[yord[1]] <- 1
b <- rep(0,p-1)
foo <- ptn(y=y,A=A,b=b,nu=nu,mu=mu,Sigma=Sigma)
})
# plot them
library(dplyr)
library(ggplot2)
ph <- data_frame(pvals=pvals) %>%
ggplot(aes(sample=pvals)) +
geom_qq(distribution=stats::qunif) +
geom_qq_line(distribution=stats::qunif)
print(ph)
Now we attempt to use the confidence interval code. We construct
a one-sided 95% confidence interval, and check how often it is violated
by the \(\mu\) of the element which shows the highest \(y\). We will
find that the empirical rate of violations of our confidence interval
is indeed around 5%:
nsim <- 5000
p <- 20
A1 <- cbind(-1,diag(p-1))
set.seed(1234)
tgtval <- 0.95
viols <- replicate(nsim,{
mu <- rnorm(p)
Sigma <- rWish(n=2*p+5,p=p)
y <- t(rmvnorm(1,mean=mu,sigma=Sigma) )
# collect the maximum, so reorder the A above
yord <- order(y,decreasing=TRUE)
revo <- seq_len(p)
revo[yord] <- revo
A <- A1[,revo]
nu <- rep(0,p)
nu[yord[1]] <- 1
b <- rep(0,p-1)
# mu is unknown to this guy
foo <- citn(p=tgtval,y=y,A=A,b=b,nu=nu,Sigma=Sigma)
violated <- mu[yord[1]] < foo
})
print(sprintf('%.2f%%',100*mean(viols)))
Testing on the Sharpe ratio
To use this machinery to perform inference on the SNR, we can either port
the results to the multivariate \(t\)-distribution,
which seems unlikely because uncorrelated marginals of a multivariate
\(t\) are not independent.
Instead we lean on the normal approximation to the vector of Sharpe ratios.
If the \(p\)-vector \(x\) is normal with correlation matrix \(R\), then
$$
\hat{\zeta}\approx\mathcal{N}\left(\zeta,\frac{1}{n}\left(
R + \frac{1}{2}\operatorname{Diag}\left(\zeta\right)\left(R \odot R\right)\operatorname{Diag}\left(\zeta\right)
\right)\right),
$$
where \(\hat{\zeta}\) is the \(p\)-vector of Sharpe ratios
computed by observing \(n\) independent draws of \(x\), and
\(\zeta\) is the \(p\)-vector of Signal Noise ratios.
Note how this generalizes the 'Lo' form of the standard
error of a scalar Sharpe ratio, viz
\(\sqrt{(1 + \zeta^2/2)/n}\).
Here we will check the uniformity of \(p\) values resulting from
using this normal approximation. This is closer to the actual
inference we want to do, except we will cheat by using the actual \(R\) and \(\zeta\)
to construct what is essentially the \(\Sigma\) to Lee's formulation.
We will set \(p=20\) and draw 3 years of daily data.
Again we plot the putative \(p\)-values against uniformity
and find a good match.
# let's test it!
nsim <- 5000
p <- 20
ndays <- 3 * 252
A1 <- cbind(-1,diag(p-1))
set.seed(4321)
pvals <- replicate(nsim,{
# population values here
mu <- rnorm(p)
Sigma <- rWish(n=2*p+5,p=p)
RRR <- cov2cor(Sigma)
zeta <- mu /sqrt(diag(Sigma))
Xrets <- rmvnorm(ndays,mean=mu,sigma=Sigma)
srs <- colMeans(Xrets) / apply(Xrets,2,FUN=sd)
y <- srs
mymu <- zeta
mySigma <- (1/ndays) * (RRR + (1/2) * diag(zeta) %*% (RRR * RRR) %*% diag(zeta))
# collect the maximum, so reorder the A above
yord <- order(y,decreasing=TRUE)
revo <- seq_len(p)
revo[yord] <- revo
A <- A1[,revo]
nu <- rep(0,p)
nu[yord[1]] <- 1
b <- rep(0,p-1)
foo <- ptn(y=y,A=A,b=b,nu=nu,mu=mymu,Sigma=mySigma)
})
# plot them
library(dplyr)
library(ggplot2)
ph <- data_frame(pvals=pvals) %>%
ggplot(aes(sample=pvals)) +
geom_qq(distribution=stats::qunif) +
geom_qq_line(distribution=stats::qunif)
print(ph)
Lastly we make one more modification, filling in
sample estimates for \(\zeta\) and \(R\) into the computation
of the covariance.
We compute
one-sided 95% confidence intervals, and check how the empirical
rate of violations.
We find the rate to be around 5%.
nsim <- 5000
p <- 20
ndays <- 3 * 252
A1 <- cbind(-1,diag(p-1))
set.seed(9873) # 5678 gives exactly 250 / 5000, which is eerie
tgtval <- 0.95
viols <- replicate(nsim,{
# population values here
mu <- rnorm(p)
Sigma <- rWish(n=2*p+5,p=p)
RRR <- cov2cor(Sigma)
zeta <- mu /sqrt(diag(Sigma))
Xrets <- rmvnorm(ndays,mean=mu,sigma=Sigma)
srs <- colMeans(Xrets) / apply(Xrets,2,FUN=sd)
Sighat <- cov(Xrets)
Rhat <- cov2cor(Sighat)
y <- srs
# now use the sample approximations.
# you can compute this from the observed information.
mySigma <- (1/ndays) * (Rhat + (1/2) * diag(srs) %*% (Rhat * Rhat) %*% diag(srs))
# collect the maximum, so reorder the A above
yord <- order(y,decreasing=TRUE)
revo <- seq_len(p)
revo[yord] <- revo
A <- A1[,revo]
nu <- rep(0,p)
nu[yord[1]] <- 1
b <- rep(0,p-1)
# mu is unknown to this guy
foo <- citn(p=tgtval,y=y,A=A,b=b,nu=nu,Sigma=mySigma)
violated <- zeta[yord[1]] < foo
})
print(sprintf('%.2f%%',100*mean(viols)))
Putting it together
Lee's method appears to give nominal coverage for hypothesis tests and confidence
intervals on the SNR of the asset with maximal Sharpe.
In principle it should not be affected by correlation of the assets
or by large differences in the SNRs of the assets.
It should be applicable in the \(p > n\) case, as we are not inverting
the covariance matrix.
On the negative side, requiring one estimate the correlation of assets
for the computation will not scale with large \(p\).
We are guardedly optimistic that this method is not adversely affected by the
normal approximation of the Sharpe ratio,
although it would be ill-advised to use it for the case of small samples
until more study is performed.
Moreover the quantile function we hacked together here should be improved
for stability and accuracy.
Click to read and post comments
Jul 14, 2018
In a previous blog post we looked at a statistical test
for overfitting of trading strategies proposed by Lopez de Prado,
which essentially uses a \(t\)-test threshold on the maximal Sharpe of backtested
returns based on assumed independence of the returns. (Actually
it is not clear if Lopez de Prado suggests a \(t\)-test or relies on
approximate normality of the \(t\), but they are close enough.)
In that blog post, we found that in the presence of mutual positive correlation
of the strategies, the test would be somewhat conservative. It is hard
to say just how conservative the test would be without making some assumptions
about the situations in which it would be used.
This is a trivial point, but needs to be mentioned: to create a useful test of
strategy overfitting, one should consider how strategies are developed and
overfit. There are numerous ways that trading strategies are, or
could be developed. I will enumerate some here, roughly in order of
decreasing methodological purity:
-
Alice the Quant goes into the desert on a Vision Quest. She emerges three days later
with a fully formed trading idea, and backtests it a single time to
satisfy the investment committee. The strategy is traded unconditional
on the results of that backtest.
-
Bob the Quant develops a black box that generates, on demand, a quantitative trading
strategy, and performs a backtest on that strategy to produce an unbiased
estimate of the historical performance of the strategy. All strategies
are produced de novo, without any relation to any other strategy
ever developed, and all have independent returns. The black box can
be queried ad infinitum. (This is essentially Lopez de Prado's
assumed mode of development.)
-
The same as above, but the strategies possibly have correlated returns, or
were possibly seeded by published anomalies or trading ideas.
-
Carole the Quant produces a single new trading idea, in a white box, that is parametrized by
a number of free parameters. The strategy is backtested on many settings
of those parameters, which are chosen by some kind of design, and the
settings which produce the maximal Sharpe are selected.
-
The same as above, except the parameters are optimized based on backtested
Sharpe using some kind of hill-climbing heuristic or an optimizer.
-
The same as above, except the trading strategy was generally known and
possibly overfit by other parties prior to publication as "an anomaly".
-
Doug the Quant develops a gray box trading idea, adding and removing parameters while
backtesting the strategy and debugging the code, mixing machine and human
heuristics, and leaving no record of the entire process.
-
A small group of Quants separately develop a bunch of trading strategies,
using common data and tools, but otherwise independently hillclimb the
in-sample Sharpe, adding and removing parameters, each backtesting countless
unknown numbers of times, all in competition to have money allocated to
their strategies.
-
The same, except the fund needs to have a 'good quarter', otherwise
investors will pull their money, and they really mean it this time.
The first development mode is intentionally ludicrous. (In fact, these modes are
also roughly ordered by increasing realism.) It is the only development model
that might result in underfitting.
The division between the second and third modes is loosely quantifiable by
the mutual correlation among strategies, as considered in the previous blog post.
But it is not at all clear how to approach the remaining development modes with the
maximal Sharpe statistic.
Perhaps a "number of pseudo-independent backtests" could be estimated and
then used with the proposed test, but one cannot say how this would
work with in-sample optimization, or the diversification benefit of looking
in multidimensional parameter space.
The Markowitz Approximation
Perhaps the maximal Sharpe test can be salvaged, but
I come to bury Caesar, not to resuscitate him.
Some years ago, I developed a test for overfitting based on an approximate
portfolio problem. I am ashamed to say, however, that while writing this
blog post I have discovered that this approximation is not as accurate as I had
remembered! It is interesting enough to present, I think, warts and all.
Suppose you could observe the time series of
backtested returns from all the backtests considered. By 'all', I want to be
very inclusive if the parameters were somehow optimized by some closed form
equation, say. Let \(Y\) be the \(n \times k\) matrix of returns, with each row
a date, and each column one of the backtests. We suppose we have selected
the strategy which maximizes Sharpe, which corresponds to picking the column of
\(Y\) with the largest Sharpe.
Now perform some kind of dimensionality reduction on the matrix \(Y\) to arrive
at
$$
Y \approx X W,
$$
where \(X\) is an \(n \times l\) matrix, and \(W\) is an \(l \times k\) matrix, and
where \(l \ll k\).
The columns of \(X\) approximately span the columns of \(Y\). Picking the strategy
with maximal Sharpe now approximately corresponds to picking a column of \(W\)
that has the highest Sharpe when multiplied by \(X\). That is, our original
overfitting approximately corresponded to the optimization problem
$$
\max_{w \in W} \operatorname{Sharpe}\left(X w\right).
$$
The unconstrained version of this optimization problem is solved by the
Markowitz portfolio. Moreover, if the returns \(X\) are multivariate normal
with independent rows, then the distribution of the (squared) Sharpe of
the Markowitz portfolio is known, both under the null hypothesis (columns of
\(X\) are all zero mean), and the alternative (the maximal achievable population
Sharpe is non-zero), via Hotelling's \(T^2\) statistic.
If \(\hat{\zeta}\) is the (in-sample) Sharpe of the (in-sample) Markowitz
portfolio on \(X\), assumed i.i.d. Normal, then
$$
\frac{(n-l) \hat{\zeta}^2}{l (n - 1)}
$$
follows an F distribution with \(l\) and \(n-l\) degrees of freedom. I wrote
the psropt
and qsropt
functions in SharpeR
to compute the CDF and
quantile of the maximal in-sample Sharpe to support this kind of analysis.
I should note there are a few problems with this approximation:
-
There is no strong theoretical basis for this approximation:
we do not have a model for how correlated returns should arise
for a particular population, nor what the dimension \(l\) should be,
nor what to expect under the alternative,
when the true optimal strategy has positive Sharpe.
(I suspect that posing overfit of backtests as a Gaussian Process
might be fruitful.)
-
We have to estimate the dimensionality, \(l\), which is about as
odious as estimating the number of 'pseudo-observations' in the
maximal Sharpe test. I had originally suspected that \(l\) would
be 'obvious' from the application, but this is not apparently so.
-
Although the returns may live nearly in an \(l\) dimensional subspace,
we might have have selected a suboptimal combination of them in
our overfitting process. This would be of no consequence if the
\(l\) were accurately estimated, but it will stymie our testing
of the approximation.
Despite these problems, let us press on.
An example: a two window Moving Average Crossover
While writing this blog post, I went looking for examples of 'classical'
technical strategies which would be ripe for overfitting (and which I could
easily simulate under the null hypothesis).
I was surprised to find that freely available material on Technical Analysis
was even worse than I could imagine. Nowhere among the annotated plots with silly
drawings could I find a concrete description of a trading strategy, possibly
with free parameters to be fit to the data.
Rather than wade through that swamp any longer, I went with an old classic,
the Moving Average Crossover.
The idea is simple: compute two moving averages of the price series with
different windows. When one is greater than the other, hold the asset long,
otherwise hold it short. The choice of two windows must be overfit by the quant.
Here I perform that experiment, but under the null hypothesis, with
zero mean simulated returns generated independently of each other.
Any realization of this strategy, with any choice of the windows, will
have zero mean returns and thus zero Sharpe.
First I collect 'backtests' (sans any trading costs) of two window MAC
for a single realization of returns
where the two windows were allowed to vary from 2 to around 1000. The backtest
period is 5 years of daily data. I compute the singular value decomposition of
the returns, then present a scree plot of the singular values.
suppressMessages({
library(dplyr)
library(fromo)
library(svdvis)
})
# return time series of *all* backtests
backtests <- function(windows,rel_rets) {
nwin <- length(windows)
nc <- choose(nwin,2)
fwd_rets <- dplyr::lead(rel_rets,1)
# log returns
log_rets <- log(1 + rel_rets)
# price series
psers <- exp(cumsum(log_rets))
avgs <- lapply(windows,fromo::running_mean,v=psers)
X <- matrix(0,nrow=length(rel_rets),ncol=2*nc)
idx <- 1
for (iii in 1:(nwin-1)) {
for (jjj in (iii+1):nwin) {
position <- sign(avgs[[iii]] - avgs[[jjj]])
myrets <- position * fwd_rets
X[,idx] <- myrets
X[,idx+1] <- -myrets
idx <- idx + 1
}
}
# trim the last row, which has the last NA
X <- X[-nrow(X),]
X
}
geomseq <- function(from=1,to=1,by=(to/from)^(1/(length.out-1)),length.out=NULL) {
if (missing(length.out)) {
lseq <- seq(log(from),log(to),by=log(by))
} else {
lseq <- seq(log(from),log(to),by=log(by),length.out=length.out)
}
exp(lseq)
}
# which windows to test
windows <- unique(ceiling(geomseq(2,1000,by=1.15)))
nobs <- ceiling(3 * 252)
maxwin <- max(windows)
rel_rets <- rnorm(maxwin + 10 + nobs,mean=0,sd=0.01)
XX <- backtests(windows,rel_rets)
# grab the last nobs rows
XX <- XX[(nrow(XX)-nobs+1):(nrow(XX)),]
# perform svd
blah <- svd(x=XX,nu=11,nv=11)
# look at it
ph <- svdvis::svd.scree(blah) +
labs(x='Singular Vectors',y='Percent Variance Explained')
print(ph)
I think we can agree that nobody knows how to interpret a scree plot.
However, in this case a large proportion of the explained variance
seems to encoded in the first two eigenvalues, which is consistent
with my a priori guess that \(l=2\) in this case because of the
two free parameters.
Next I simulate overfitting, performing that same experiment, but
picking the largest in-sample Sharpe ratio.
I create a series of independent zero mean
returns, then backtest a bunch of MAC strategies, and save the maximal Sharpe
over a 3 year window of daily data.
I repeat this experiment ten thousand times,
and then look at the distribution of that maximal Sharpe.
suppressMessages({
library(dplyr)
library(tidyr)
library(tibble)
library(SharpeR)
library(future.apply)
library(ggplot2)
})
ope <- 252
geomseq <- function(from=1,to=1,by=(to/from)^(1/(length.out-1)),length.out=NULL) {
if (missing(length.out)) {
lseq <- seq(log(from),log(to),by=log(by))
} else {
lseq <- seq(log(from),log(to),by=log(by),length.out=length.out)
}
exp(lseq)
}
# one simulation. returns maximal Sharpe
onesim <- function(windows,n=1000) {
maxwin <- max(windows)
rel_rets <- rnorm(maxwin + 10 + n,mean=0,sd=0.01)
fwd_rets <- dplyr::lead(rel_rets,1)
# log returns
log_rets <- log(1 + rel_rets)
# price series
psers <- exp(cumsum(log_rets))
avgs <- lapply(windows,fromo::running_mean,v=psers)
nwin <- length(windows)
maxsr <- 0
for (iii in 1:(nwin-1)) {
for (jjj in (iii+1):nwin) {
position <- sign(avgs[[iii]] - avgs[[jjj]])
myrets <- position * fwd_rets
# compute Sharpe on some part of this
compon <- myrets[(length(myrets)-n):(length(myrets)-1)]
thissr <- SharpeR::as.sr(compon,ope=ope)$sr
# we are implicitly testing both combinations of long and short here,
# so we take the absolute Sharpe, since we will always overfit to
# the better of the two:
maxsr <- max(maxsr,abs(thissr))
}
}
maxsr
}
windows <- unique(ceiling(geomseq(2,1000,by=1.15)))
nobs <- ceiling(3 * 252)
nrep <- 10000
plan(multiprocess)
set.seed(1234)
system.time({
simvals <- future_replicate(nrep,onesim(windows,n=nobs))
})
user system elapsed
1522.724 5.978 271.297
Here I plot the empirical quantiles of the maximal (annualized) Sharpe versus
theoretical quantiles under the Markowitz approximation, assuming \(l=2\).
I also plot the \(y=x\) lines, and horizontal and vertical lines at the nominal
upper \(0.05\) cutoff based on the Markowitz approximation.
# plot max value vs quantile
library(ggplot2)
apxdf <- 2.0
ph <- data.frame(simvals=simvals) %>%
ggplot(aes(sample=simvals)) +
geom_vline(xintercept=SharpeR::qsropt(0.95,df1=apxdf,df2=nobs,zeta.s=0,ope=ope),linetype=3) +
geom_hline(yintercept=SharpeR::qsropt(0.95,df1=apxdf,df2=nobs,zeta.s=0,ope=ope),linetype=3) +
stat_qq(distribution=SharpeR::qsropt,dparams=list(df1=apxdf,df2=nobs,zeta.s=0,ope=ope)) +
geom_abline(intercept=0,slope=1,linetype=2) +
labs(title='empirical quantiles of maximal Sharpe versus Markowitz Approximation',
x='theoretical quantile',y='empirical quantile (Sharpe in annual units)')
print(ph)
This approximation is clearly no good. The empirical rate of type I errors
at the \(0.05\) level is around 60%,
and the Q-Q line is just off. I must admit that when I previously looked at
this approximation (and in the vignette for SharpeR
!) I used the qqline
function in base R
, which fits a line based on the first and third quartile
of the empirical fit. That corresponds to an affine shift of the line we see
here, and nothing seems amiss.
So perhaps the Markowitz approximation can be salvaged, if I can figure out why
this shift occurs. Perhaps we have only traded picking a maximal \(t\) for
picking a maximal \(T^2\) and there still has to be a mechanism to account for
that. Or perhaps in this case, despite the 'obvious' setting of \(l=2\), we
should have chosen \(l=7\), for which the empirical rate of
type I errors is around 60%, though
we have no way of seeing that 7 from the scree plot or by looking at
the mechanism for generating strategies. Or perhaps the problem is that we
have not actually picked a maximal strategy over the subspace, and this
technique can only be used to provide a possibly conservative test. In this
regard, our test would be no more useful than the maximal Sharpe test
described in the previous blog post.
Click to read and post comments